Question 1: Women are at the highest risk for developing postpartum depression for up to how long after childbirth?
Question 2: CPT coding offers the uniformed language used for reporting medical services and procedures performed by physician and nonphysician practitioners. Clinicians are paid based on calculated resource costs that are calculated based on practice components.
a. Clinician education loans
b. Clinician practice liability and malpractice expense
c. Clinician reported cost reduction efforts
d. Clinician volume of patients treated
Question 3: Janet is a 30-year-old woman who has been recently diagnosed with a herniated disc at the level of L5-S1. She is currently in the emergency room with suspicion of cauda equina compression.
Which of the following is a sign or symptom of cauda equina compression?
a. Gastrocnemius weakness
b. A reduced or absent ankle reflex
c. Numbness in the lateral foot
d. Paresthesia of the perineum and buttocks
Question 4: A 58-year-old woman who had a total abdominal hysterectomy at the age of 45 is diagnosed with atrophic vaginitis. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?
a. Conjugated estrogen 0.625 mg/day oral
b. Estradiol 7.5 mcg/24 hr vaginal ring
c. Medroxyprogesterone 10 mg/day oral
d. Conjugated estrogen 0.3 mg + medroxyprogesterone 1.5 mg/day oral
Question 5: Which of the following is a specific test for multiple sclerosis (MS)?
a. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
b. Computed tomography (CT) scan
c. A lumbar puncture
d. There is no specific test.
Question 6: Most adult poisonings are:
a. intentional and self-inflicted.
c. caused by someone wishing to do harm to the person.
d. not attributed to any reason.
Question 7: A 60-year-old man presents with an enlarged scrotum. The clinician uses a penlight to transilluminate the scrotum. In a patient with a hydrocele, what would the clinician expect to find?
a. The scrotum will be dark.
b. The scrotum will appear light pink or yellow.
c. The scrotum will appear milky white.
d. The internal structures will be clearly visible.
Question 8: Which clinical feature is the first to be affected in increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?What is the normal number for the Glascow Coma Scale?
Question 9: S presents in the clinic with pain, tenderness, erythema, and swelling of his left great toe. The clinician suspects acute gout. Which of the following should the clinician suspect in the initial test results for this patient?
a. Elevated uric acid level
b. Elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
c. Decreased urine pH
d. Decreased C-reactive protein (CRP)
Question 10: Which solution should be used when irrigating lacerated tissue over a wound on the arm?
a. Dilute povidone-iodine solution
b. Hydrogen peroxide (H2O2)
c. Saline solution infused with an antibiotic
d. Saline irrigation or soapy water
Question 11: Which ethical principle reflects respect for all persons and their self-determination?
Question 12: During a digital rectal exam (DRE) on a 75-year-old man, the clinician suspects the patient has prostate cancer. What physical finding should make the clinician suspicious?
a. An enlarged rubbery gland
b. A hard irregular gland
c. A tender gland
d. A boggy gland
Question 13: How often should the clinician examine the feet of a person with diabetes?
a. Once a year
b. Every 6 months
c. Every 3 months
d. Every visit
Question 14: Which of the following medications is the treatment of choice for trichomonas? (Points: 2)
Question 15: Immunizations are an example of which type of prevention? (Points: 2)
Question 16: What is the treatment of choice for a patient diagnosed with testicular cancer?
a. Radical orchidectomy
c. Radiation implants
d. All of the above
Question 17: George, aged 59, complains of a flulike illness, including fever, chills, and myalgia after returning from visiting his grandchildren in New England. He reports having discovered a rash or red spot that grew in size on his right leg. What disease are you considering?
a. A viral syndromes
b. Lyme disease
c. Rocky Mountain spotted fever
d. Relapsing fever
Question 18: A 24-year-old woman presents to the clinic with dysuria, dyspareunia, and a mucopurulent vaginal discharge. Her boyfriend was recently treated for nongonococcal urethritis. What sexually transmitted disease (STD) has she most probably been exposed to?
b. Human papillomavirus (HPV)
Question 19: What is usually the first sign or symptom that a patient would present with that would make you suspect herpes zoster?
a. A stabbing type of pain on one small area of the body
b. A vesicular skin lesion on one side of the body
c. A pain that is worse upon awakening
d. A lesion on the exterior ear canal
Question 20: Which drug commonly prescribed for burns is active against a wide spectrum of microbial pathogens and is the most frequently used agent for partial- and full-thickness thermal injuries?
a. Clotrimazole cream (Lotrimen)
b. Mafenide acetate (Sulfamylon)
c. Silver nitrate
d. Silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene)
Question 21: Which of the following is a role of the advanced practice nurse in palliative cancer care?
a. Detecting cancer in asymptomatic patients or those with specific symptoms
b. Arranging for follow-up care, including psychosocial and spiritual support
c. Identifying and managing complications of care
d. All of the above
Question 22: Which type of burn injury results in destruction of epidermis with most of the dermis, yet the epidermal cells lining hair follicles and sweat glands remain intact?
a. Superficial burns
b. Superficial partial-thickness burns
c. Deep partial-thickness burns
d. Full-thickness burns
Question 23: The criteria for diagnosing generalized anxiety disorder in the American Psychiatric Association’s Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (text revision) (DSM-IV-TR) state that excessive worry or apprehension must be present more days than not for at least:
a. 1 month.
b. 3 months.
c. 6 months.
d. 12 months.
Question 24: In the United States, what is the second most common connective tissue disease and the most destructive to the joints?
b. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
c. Rheumatoid arthritis (RA)
d. Sjogren’s syndrome
Question 25: A sunscreen with a sun-protection factor (SPF) of at least what number will block most harmful ultraviolet (UV) radiation?
Question 26: The hallmark of an absence seizure is:
a. No activity at all.
b. A blank stare.
c. Urine is usually voided involuntarily.
d. The attack usually lasts several minutes.
Question 27: The effectiveness of benzodiazepines in treating anxiety disorders suggests that which of the following neurotransmitters plays a role in anxiety?
b. Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
Question 28: Which characteristic of delirium helps to distinguish delirium from dementia?
a. Abrupt onset
b. Impaired attention
c. Affective changes
Question 29: A 26-year-old woman is seen with complaints of irregular vaginal bleeding. Which of the following tests should be the first priority?
a. Pregnancy test
b. Pelvic ultrasound
c. Endometrial biopsy
d. Platelet count
Question 30: The clinician should question the patient with suspected gout about use of which of these medications that may be a risk factor?
a. Low-dose aspirin
b. Thiazide diuretics
d. All of the above
Question 31: A bulla is:
a. A vesicle larger than 1 cm in diameter.
b. An elevated solid mass with a hard texture, and the shape and borders can be regular or irregular.
c. A superficial elevated lesion filled with purulent fluid.
d. Thinning of the skin (epidermis and dermis) that appears white or translucent.
Question 32: Sam is a 25-year-old man who has been diagnosed with low back strain based on his history of localized low back pain and muscle spasm along with a normal neurological examination.
As the clinician, you explain to Sam that low back pain is a diagnosis of exclusion. Which of the following symptoms would alert the clinician to the more serious finding of a herniated nucleus pulposus or ruptured disc?
a. Morning stiffness and limited mobility of the lumbar spine
b. Unilateral radicular pain symptoms that extend below the knee and are equal to or greater than the back pain
c. Fever, chills, and elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate
d. Pathologic fractures, severe night pain, weight loss, and fatigue
Question 33: Which of the following statements is true concerning the musculoskeletal exam?
a. The uninvolved side should be examined initially and compared to the involved side.
b. The part of the body that is causing the patient pain should be examined first.
c. The patient should not be asked to perform active range-of-motion (ROM) exercises whenever possible to avoid causing pain.
d. Radiographs should always be obtained prior to examination so as not to cause further injury to the patient.
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