Week 4 Midterm Exam Version 1, 2, 3 & 5

Question 38: Janet is a 30-year-old woman who has been recently diagnosed with a herniated disc at the level of L5-S1. She is currently in the emergency room with suspicion of cauda equina compression. Which of the following is a sign or symptom of cauda equina compression?
a. Gastrocnemius weakness
b. A reduced or absent ankle reflex
c. Numbness in the lateral foot
d. Paresthesia of the perineum and buttocks

Question 39: The criteria for diagnosing generalized anxiety disorder in the American Psychiatric Association’s Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (text revision) (DSM-IV-TR) state that excessive worry or apprehension must be present more days than not for at least:

a. 1 month.
b. 3 months.
c. 6 months.
d. 12 months.

Question 40: The clinician has instructed Sam, a 25-year-old patient with low back strain, to use NSAIDs to manage his symptoms of pain and discomfort. Which of the following statements would be most appropriate when teaching Sam about the use of NSAIDs to manage his pain?

a. You should start with the lowest dose that is effective in managing your pain, because long-term use of NSAIDs can result in gastrointestinal (GI) disorders such as ulcers and hemorrhage.
b. You should start with the lowest dose that is effective in managing your pain in order to avoid developing tolerance to the medication.
c. You should take the maximum recommended dose of NSAIDs so that you will not need to take narcotics to control your pain.
d. It is important to take NSAIDs on an empty stomach in order to increase absorption.

Question 41: A patient is diagnosed with hypothyroidism. Which of the following electrocardiogram (ECG) changes should the clinician expect as a manifestation of the disease?  

a. Sinus bradycardia

b. Atrial fibrillation

c. Supraventricular tachycardia
d. U waves

Question 42: Sam is a 25-year-old man who has been diagnosed with low back strain based on his history of localized low back pain and muscle spasm along with a normal neurological examination. As the clinician, you explain to Sam that low back pain is a diagnosis of exclusion. Which of the following symptoms would alert the clinician to the more serious finding of a herniated nucleus pulposus or ruptured disc?
a. Morning stiffness and limited mobility of the lumbar spine
b. Unilateral radicular pain symptoms that extend below the knee and are equal to or greater than the back pain
c. Fever, chills, and elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate
d. Pathologic fractures, severe night pain, weight loss, and fatigue

Question 43: Which type of burn injury results in destruction of epidermis with most of the dermis, yet the epidermal cells lining hair follicles and sweat glands remain intact?
a. Superficial burns
b. Superficial partial-thickness burns
c. Deep partial-thickness burns
d. Full-thickness burns

Question 44: Immunizations are an example of which type of prevention?

a. Primary
b. Secondary
c. Tertiary

Question 45: If a previously frostbitten area becomes frostbitten again after it has healed, what might occur?

a. Permanent tissue damage may occur, resulting in necrosis to that body part.
b. The area will be super sensitive.
c. The area is prone to a repeat frostbite.
d. The area is as susceptible as any other area.

Question 46: In the United States, what is the second most common connective tissue disease and the most destructive to the joints?

a. Osteoarthritis
b. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
c. Rheumatoid arthritis (RA)
d. Sjogren’s syndrome

Question 47: A 26-year-old woman is seen with complaints of irregular vaginal bleeding. Which of the following tests should be the first priority?
a. Pregnancy test

b. Pelvic ultrasound .

c. Endometrial biopsy
d. Platelet count

Question 48: A 45-year-old woman is seen in the clinic with complaints of a vaginal discharge. The clinician identifies clue cells on the vaginal smear. Which of the following diagnoses is associated with this finding?
a. Trichomonas
b. Bacterial vaginosis
c. Human papillomavirus (HPV)
d. Herpes simplex virus (HSV)

Question 49: Julie, aged 50, has migraine headaches, frequent asthma attacks, coronary artery disease, and hypertension. Which of the following prophylactic medications would you order for her migraines?

a. Propranolol

b. Timolol

c. Ergotamine
d. Topiramate

Question 50: A 64-year-old man with type 2 diabetes presents to the clinic with the complaint of “my feet feel like they are on fire.” He has a loss of vibratory sense, +1 Achilles reflex, and a tack embedded in his left heel. Which of the following would be an appropriate treatment?

a. Tricyclic antidepressants
b. Capsacin cream
c. Vitamin B12 injections
d. Insulin

NR 511 Week 4 Midterm Exam Version 5

Question 1: How often should the clinician examine the feet of a person with diabetes?

a. Once a year
b. Every 6 months
c. Every 3 months
d. Every visit

Question 2: Which drug for Alzheimer’s disease should be administered beginning at the time of diagnosis?

a. Cholinesterase inhibitors
b. Anxiolytics
c. Antidepressants
d. Atypical antipsychotics

Question 3: Most adult poisonings are:

a. intentional and self-inflicted.
b. accidental.
c. caused by someone wishing to do harm to the person.
d. not attributed to any reason.

Question 4: A 58-year-old woman presents with a breast mass. Which of the following responses by the clinician would be most appropriate?

a. “It is probably just a cyst, because that is the most common breast mass.”
b. “We will order a mammogram and ultrasound to help establish a diagnosis.”
c. “We will go ahead and schedule you for a biopsy because that is the only way to know for sure.”
d. “Because your lump is painful, it is most likely not cancer.”

Question 5: Which of the following is a specific test for multiple sclerosis (MS)?

a. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
b. Computed tomography (CT) scan
c. A lumbar puncture
d. There is no specific test.

Question 6: After removing a tack from a type 2 diabetic’s heel and evaluating the site for infection, what is the best plan for this patient?

a. Suggest she use a heating pad to improve circulation
b. Refer to a podiatrist for a foot care treatment plan
c. Send her for acupuncture treatments
d. All of the above

Question 7: Which characteristic of delirium helps to distinguish delirium from dementia?

a. Abrupt onset
b. Impaired attention
c. Affective changes
d. Delusions

Question 8: Which clinical feature is the first to be affected in increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?

a. Decrease in level of consciousness (LOC)
b. Headache
c. Nausea
d. Widening pulse pressure

Question 9: Jennifer is an 18-year-old girl who comes to the emergency room after a fall during a soccer game. Jennifer explains that she fell on her left side and kept her arm out straight to break her fall. She has been experiencing severe pain and limited range of motion in her left shoulder. The clinician has diagnosed Jennifer with a dislocated shoulder. Which of the following statements are true concerning shoulder dislocation?

a. Posterior dislocations are more common than anterior dislocations.
b. There is a risk of neurovascular and neurosensory trauma, so the clinician should check for distal pulses.
c. Recurrent dislocations are uncommon and would require a greater force to result in injury.
d. Surgery is most commonly the treatment of choice.

Question 10: Which of the following signs or symptoms indicate an inflammatory etiology to musculoskeletal pain?

a. Decreased C-reactive protein
b. Hyperalbuminemia
c. Morning stiffness
d. Weight gain

Question 11: The clinician sees a patient who is 5 feet tall and weighs 150 pounds. How would the clinician classify this patient?

a. Overweight

b. Mild obesity

c. Moderate obesity
d. Morbid obesity

Question 12: The vegetarian patient with gout asks the clinician about food that he should avoid. The clinician should advise the patient to avoid which of the following foods?

a. Rice
b. Carrots
c. Spinach
d. Potatoes

Question 13: A 23-year-old sexually active woman presents for her first Pap smear. Her history includes nulligravida, age at first intercourse 14, and more than 10 sexual partners. Which of the following conditions should the clinician be particularly alert for during her exam?

a. Human papillomavirus (HPV)
b. Endometrial hyperplasia
c. Vagismus
d. Polycystic ovarian syndrome

Question 14: Which of the following classes of drugs should be used as first-line therapy for treatment of delirium?

a. Benzodiazepines
b. Antipsychotics
c. Anticonvulsants
d. Antidepressants

Question 15: What is the treatment of choice for a patient diagnosed with testicular cancer?

a. Radical orchidectomy

b. Lumpectomy

c. Radiation implants
d. All of the above

Question 16: A 24-year-old woman presents to the clinic with dysuria, dyspareunia, and a mucopurulent vaginal discharge. Her boyfriend was recently treated for nongonococcal urethritis. What sexually transmitted disease (STD) has she most probably been exposed to?

a. Gonorrhea
b. Human papillomavirus (HPV)
c. Chlamydia
d. Trichomonas

Question 17: A 58-year-old woman who had a total abdominal hysterectomy at the age of 45 is diagnosed with atrophic vaginitis. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?

a. Conjugated estrogen 0.625 mg/day oral
b. Estradiol 7.5 mcg/24 hr vaginal ring
c. Medroxyprogesterone 10 mg/day oral
d. Conjugated estrogen 0.3 mg + medroxyprogesterone 1.5 mg/day oral

Question 18: When looking under the microscope to diagnose an intravaginal infection, you see a cluster of small and oval to round shapes. What do you suspect they are?

a. Spores

b. Leukocytes

c. Pseudohyphae
d. Epithelial cells

Question 19: Patients with a spontaneous pneumothorax should be counseled that up to what percentage may experience a reoccurrence at some point?

a. 10%

b. 20%

c. 30%
d. 50%

Question 20: John is a 16-year-old boy who presents to the emergency room after hurting his knee in a football game. He described twisting his knee and then being unable to extend it completely. John tells the clinician that he heard a pop when the injury occurred and has been experiencing localized pain. The clinician suspects a meniscal tear. Which test would be most appropriate to assess for the presence of a meniscal tear?

a. Valgus stress test
b. McMurray circumduction test
c. Lachman test
d. Varus stress test

Question 21: During a digital rectal exam (DRE) on a 75-year-old man, the clinician suspects the patient has prostate cancer. What physical finding should make the clinician suspicious?

a. An enlarged rubbery gland

b. A hard irregular gland

c. A tender gland
d. A boggy gland

Question 22: Janet is a 30-year-old woman who has been recently diagnosed with a herniated disc at the level of L5-S1. She is currently in the emergency room with suspicion of cauda equina compression. Which of the following is a sign or symptom of cauda equina compression?

a. Gastrocnemius weakness
b. A reduced or absent ankle reflex
c. Numbness in the lateral foot
d. Paresthesia of the perineum and buttocks

Question 23: The criteria for diagnosing generalized anxiety disorder in the American Psychiatric Association’s Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (text revision) (DSM-IV-TR) state that excessive worry or apprehension must be present more days than not for at least:

a. 1 month.
b. 3 months.
c. 6 months.
d. 12 months.

Question 24: A patient is diagnosed with hypothyroidism. Which of the following electrocardiogram (ECG) changes should the clinician expect as a manifestation of the disease?

a. Sinus bradycardia

b. Atrial fibrillation

c. Supraventricular tachycardia
d. U waves

Question 25: Which type of burn injury results in destruction of epidermis with most of the dermis, yet the epidermal cells lining hair follicles and sweat glands remain intact?

a. Superficial burns
b. Superficial partial-thickness burns
c. Deep partial-thickness burns
d. Full-thickness burns

Question 26: Immunizations are an example of which type of prevention?

a. Primary
b. Secondary
c. Tertiary

Question 27: If a previously frostbitten area becomes frostbitten again after it has healed, what might occur?

a. Permanent tissue damage may occur, resulting in necrosis to that body part.
b. The area will be super sensitive.
c. The area is prone to a repeat frostbite.
d. The area is as susceptible as any other area.

Question 28: A 26-year-old woman is seen with complaints of irregular vaginal bleeding. Which of the following tests should be the first priority?

a. Pregnancy test

b. Pelvic ultrasound

c. Endometrial biopsy
d. Platelet count

Question 29: Julie, aged 50, has migraine headaches, frequent asthma attacks, coronary artery disease, and hypertension. Which of the following prophylactic medications would you order for her migraines?

a. Propranolol

c. Ergotamine
b. Timolol

d. Topiramate

Question 30: A 64-year-old man with type 2 diabetes presents to the clinic with the complaint of “my feet feel like they are on fire.” He has a loss of vibratory sense, +1 Achilles reflex, and a tack embedded in his left heel. Which of the following would be an appropriate treatment?

a. Tricyclic antidepressants
b. Capsacin cream
c. Vitamin B12 injections
d. Insulin

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