South University Final Exam 2019

Question 30 options:

a)Hypovolemic shock from blood lost during the injury

b)Breathing difficulties from an impairment to the diaphragm

c)Head injury that likely occurred during the injury

d)Spinal shock immediately after the injury

Question 31 (5 points)

What term is used to describe the complication that can result from a spinal cord injury above T6 that is producing paroxysmal hypertension, as well as piloerection and sweating above the spinal cord lesion?

Question 31 options:

a)Craniosacral dysreflexia

b)Parasympathetic dysreflexia

c)Autonomic hyperreflexia

d)Retrograde hyperreflexia


Question 32 (5 points)

Atheromatous plaques are most commonly found:

Question 32 options:

a)In larger veins

b)Near capillary sphincters

c)At branches of arteries

d)On the venous sinuses

Question 33 (5 points)

Multiple sclerosis is best described as:

Question 33 options:

a)A CNS demyelination, possibly from an immunogenetic virus

b)Inadequate supply of acetylcholine at the neurotransmitter junction as a result of an autoimmune disorder

c)The depletion of dopamine in the CNS as a result of a virus

d)A degenerative disorder of lower and upper motor neurons caused by viral-immune factors

Question 34 (5 points)

Graves disease develops from:

Question 34 options:

a)A viral infection of the thyroid gland that causes overproduction of thyroid hormone

b)An autoimmune process during which lymphocytes and fibrous tissue replace thyroid tissue

c)Thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulin, which causes overproduction of thyroid hormones

d)Ingestion of goitrogens, which inhibits the synthesis of the thyroid hormones, causing goiter

Question 35 (5 points)

Pathologic changes associated with Graves disease include:

Question 35 options:

a)High levels of circulating thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulins

b)Diminished levels of TRH

c)High levels of TSH

d)Diminished levels of thyroid-binding globulin

Question 36 (5 points)

A patient diagnosed with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) has the following laboratory values: arterial pH 7.20, serum glucose 500 mg/dl, positive urine glucose and ketones, serum potassium (K+) 2 mEq/L, and serum sodium (Na+) 130 mEq/L. The patient
reports that he has been sick with the “flu” for a week. What relationship do these values have to his insulin deficiency?

Question 36 options:

a)Increased glucose use causes the shift of fluid from the intravascular to the intracellular space.

b)Decreased glucose use causes fatty acid use, ketogenesis, metabolic acidosis, and osmotic diuresi

c)Increased glucose and fatty acids stimulate renal diuresis, electrolyte loss, and metabolic alkalosis.

d)Decreased glucose use results in protein catabolism, tissue wasting, respiratory acidosis, and electrolyte loss.

Question 37 (5 points)

Type 2 diabetes mellitus is best described as:

Question 37 options:

a)Resistance to insulin by insulin-sensitive tissues

b)The need for lispro instead of regular insulin

c)An increase in glucagon secretion from α cells of the pancreas

d)The presence of insulin autoantibodies that destroy β cells in the pancreas

Question 38 (5 points)

The common hay fever allergy is expressed through a reaction that is mediated by which class of immunoglobulins?

Question 38 options:

a)Immunoglobulin E (IgE)

b)Immunoglobulin G (IgG)

c)Immunoglobulin M (IgM)

d)T cells

Question 39 (5 points)

A person diagnosed with type 1 diabetes experiences hunger, lightheadedness, tachycardia, pallor, headache, and confusion. The most probable cause of these symptoms is:

Question 39 options:

a)Hyperglycemia caused by incorrect insulin administration

b)The dawn phenomenon from eating a snack before bedtime

c)Hypoglycemia caused by increased exercise

d)Somogyi effect from insulin sensitivity

Question 40 (5 points)

Hypoglycemia, followed by rebound hyperglycemia, is observed in those with:

Question 40 options:

a)The Somogyi effect

b)The dawn phenomenon

c)Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)

d)Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome

Question 41 (5 points)

Which structure is lined with columnar epithelial cells

Question 41 options:


b)Endocervical canal



Question 42 (5 points)

Where is the usual site of cervical dysplasia or cancer in situ?

Question 42 options:

a)Where the squamous epithelium of the cervix meets the cuboidal epithelium of the vagina

b)Where the columnar epithelium of the cervix meets the squamous epithelium of the uterus

c)Where the squamous epithelium of the cervix meets the columnar epithelium of the uterus

d)Where the columnar epithelium of the cervix meets the squamous epithelium of the vagina

Question 43 (5 points)

Which statement best describes a Schilling test?

Question 43 options:

a)Administration of radioactive cobalamin and the measurement of its excretion in the urine to test for vitamin B12 deficiency

b)Measurement of antigen-antibody immune complexes in the blood to test for hemolytic anemia

c)Measurement of serum ferritin and total iron-binding capacity in the blood to test for iron deficiency anemia

d)Administration of folate and measurement in two hours of its level in a blood sample to test for folic acid deficiency anemia

Question 44 (5 points)

In aplastic anemia (AA), pancytopenia develops as a result of which of the following?

Question 44 options:

a)Suppression of erythropoietin to produce adequate amounts of erythrocytes

b)Suppression of the bone marrow to produce adequate amounts of erythrocytes, leukocytes, and thrombocytes

c)Lack of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) to form sufficient quantities of erythrocytes, leukocytes, and thrombocytes

d)Lack of stem cells to form sufficient quantities of leukocytes

Question 45 (5 points)

Which statement is true regarding warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia?

Question 45 options:

a)Warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia occurs primarily in men.

b)It is self-limiting and rarely produces hemolysis.

c)Erythrocytes are bound to macrophages and sequestered in the spleen.

d)Immunoglobulin M (IgM) coats erythrocytes and binds them to receptors on monocytes.

Question 46 (5 points)

Hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN) can occur if the mother:

Question 46 options:

a)Is Rh-positive and the fetus is Rh-negative

b)Is Rh-negative and the fetus is Rh-positive

c)Has type A blood and the fetus has type O blood

d)Has type AB blood and the fetus has type B blood

Question 47 (5 points)

When diagnosed with hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN), why does the newborn develop hyperbilirubinemia after birth but not in utero?

Question 47 options:

a)Excretion of unconjugated bilirubin through the placenta into the mother’s circulation is no longer possible.

b)Hemoglobin does not break down into bilirubin in the intrauterine environment.

c)The liver of the fetus is too immature to conjugate bilirubin from a lipid-soluble form to a water-soluble form.

d)The destruction of erythrocytes producing bilirubin is greater after birth.

Question 48 (5 points)

How does angiotensin II increase the workload of the heart after a myocardial infarction (MI)?

Question 48 options:

a)By increasing the peripheral vasoconstriction

b)By causing dysrhythmias as a result of hyperkalemia

c)By reducing the contractility of the myocardium

Question 49 (5 points)

What event is a characteristic of the function in Zone I of the lung?

Question 49 options:

a)Blood flow through the pulmonary capillary bed increases in regular increments.

b)Alveolar pressure is greater than venous pressure but not greater than arterial pressure.

c)The capillary bed collapses, and normal blood flow ceases.

d)Blood flows through Zone I, but it is impeded to a certain extent by alveolar pressure.

Question 50 (5 points)

What factor associated with gluten-sensitive enteropathy (celiac sprue) causes an infant to bruise and bleed easily?

Question 50 options:

a)Vitamin K deficiency from fat malabsorption

b)Bone marrow function depression

c)Iron, folate, and B12 deficiency anemias

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